What Is God’s Foreknowledge?

One of the common counter-arguments to God’s sovereignty in salvation is related to the term “foreknowledge.” The libertarian free will side believes that this word, in all of its biblical contexts, strictly refers to God knowing all things past, present and future. Therefore, in the context of its use in Romans 8:29 and 11:2, as well as 1 Peter 1:2, foreknowledge should be understood as God knowing beforehand (from eternity past) who will and will not trust in Jesus Christ as their Savior and Lord. On this basis God elected (or chose) His children.

Sovereign grace advocates affirm that God is indeed omniscient but believe that this explanation contextually misses the understanding of how God ‘knows’ his people in Scripture. The Bible provides many examples of God knowing his people in a specially chosen and/or beloved way. For instance, God says in Jeremiah 1:5, "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I appointed you a prophet to the nations." Another example is found in Amos 3:2, "You only have I known of all the families of the earth; therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.” In Matthew 7:23 Jesus issues a warning to those unknown by Him, “And then will I declare to them, 'I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.'” There are many other Old and New Testament verses that use the word know in a similar fashion, including Ex 33:17, Deut 9:24, Hos 8:4, Jn 10:14, 1 Cor 8:3, and 2 Tim 2:19.

This understanding of the word “know” in our modern context is likewise similar. For example, consider the following statement: “I know the ABCs very well, and I know Christine very well.” The first half of this sentence simply indicates my solid grasp on all the letters, A through Z. It denotes knowledge of facts or information. I mean something dramatically different by the second half of the sentence. Christine is my wife. I know her very well in the sense that I’m in a covenant relationship with her. I love her very deeply with an unconditional love. I admire her personality, talents and beauty; and, I enjoy spending time with her. Thus, our understanding of “knowing” someone can indicate a tremendous depth of love and emotions. In light of the scripture references to God choosing us according to His will and salvation not being a result of human will (Eph 1:4-5,11; Jn 1:12-13; Rom 9:15-16), why would it not be most likely that God foreknowing us indicates His special love for us?

For those still unconvinced that “foreknowledge” in the previously identified Romans and 1 Peter texts points to those whom God relationally knows and loves, Dr. Wayne Grudem provides the following logical consideration for foreknowledge understood only as the advance knowledge of future choices:
"If we assume that God's knowledge of the future is true (which evangelicals all agree upon), then it is absolutely certain that person A will believe and person B will not. There is no way their lives could turn out any differently than this. Therefore it is fair to say that their destinies are still determined, for they could not be otherwise. But by what are their destinies determined? If they are determined by God himself, then we no longer have election based ultimately on foreknowledge of faith, but rather on God's sovereign will. But if these destinies are not determined by God, then who or what determines them? Certainly no Christian would say that there is some powerful being other than God controlling people's destinies. Therefore the only possible alternative is to say they are determined by some impersonal force, some kind of fate, operative in the universe, making things turn out as they do. But what kind of benefit is this? We have then sacrificed election in love by a personal God for a kind of determinism by an impersonal force and God is no longer to be given the ultimate credit for our salvation" (Systematic Theology, p. 679).

After reading Wayne Grudem’s logical progression you may still respond that it’s a person’s choice that ultimately controls their destiny. However, does this answer not come with its own set of problematic baggage? For instance, even if this situation is not a reality to you, imagine that two of your beloved family members are not professing Christians. One dies rejecting Christ until the very end of their life, but the other ends up trusting in Jesus Christ for salvation. Assuming both heard the true Gospel, what caused one to reject it and the other to accept it? Was one smarter, more enlightened, more moral or more deserving than the other? Consider that Ephesians 2:8-9 is one of numerous passages that clearly states by grace we are saved – not of ourselves and not of works.

Additionally, if faith by our own choice is understood as something that saves us and not as the result of God’s grace alone, did or did not Christ die for the sin of unbelief on the cross? This can be confusing, so let me quote all of Ephesians 2:8-10:

For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

Theological debate abounds concerning to what “this is not your own doing” refers, which is unquestionably linked to the phrase immediately following, “it is the gift of God.” In the Greek, “this” is a neuter pronoun while both grace and faith are feminine nouns. If Paul was intending to refer to only “faith” or “grace,” he would have used a feminine form of “this.” By using the neuter form, it seems to most naturally indicate that Paul is referring to the entirety of salvation as God’s gift, which obviously includes both grace and faith. It’s notable that even if this interpretation is not correct and only grace is intended, the preceding verses in Ephesians 2:4-5 say, “But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ— by grace you have been saved.” Salvation here is attributed only to grace without mention of faith, and is singularly attributed to God’s action. Of course, we must respond in faith if God’s grace has truly reached us, but it is not described as possible apart from God’s initiating grace alone.

Faith divorced from God’s initiating grace becomes something originating from us – a work. The term “works” in verse 9 does not contextually refer to satisfying the Mosaic Law such as in Romans or Galatians. This usage indicates all conceivable efforts to obligate God for our ultimate benefit. Considering, if faith is not seen as part of this “gift of God,” then how can it be anything but “our own doing?”

Pardon the brief excursus – this brings us back to the question of whether or not Christ died for the sin of unbelief. If not, is the atonement truly complete? In what sense did Jesus mean, “it is finished,” before he died on the cross? If Jesus indeed died for the sin of unbelief, was it for every man’s unbelief? If so, why are not all men saved? This becomes a circular argument unless the atonement is further discussed, which we’ll contend with next week! Let’s wrap-up this week’s question.

If foreknowledge is understood as God’s special love for His children, Romans 8:28-30 provides comforting assurance of our eternal salvation:

“And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.”